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If $\mathbf{A}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 5 \\ 6 & 2\end{array}\right]$ and $\mathbf{B}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}3 & 7 \\ 8 & 4\end{array}\right], \mathbf{A} \mathbf{B}^{\mathrm{T}}$ is equal to
(A) $\left[\begin{array}{ll}38 & 28 \\ 32 & 56\end{array}\right]$
(B) $\left[\begin{array}{cc}3 & 40 \\ 42 & 8\end{array}\right]$
(C) $\left[\begin{array}{ll}43 & 27 \\ 34 & 50\end{array}\right]$
(D) $\left[\begin{array}{ll}38 & 32 \\ 28 & 56\end{array}\right]$



Question ID - 156716 | SaraNextGen Top Answer

If $\mathbf{A}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 5 \\ 6 & 2\end{array}\right]$ and $\mathbf{B}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}3 & 7 \\ 8 & 4\end{array}\right], \mathbf{A} \mathbf{B}^{\mathrm{T}}$ is equal to
(A) $\left[\begin{array}{ll}38 & 28 \\ 32 & 56\end{array}\right]$
(B) $\left[\begin{array}{cc}3 & 40 \\ 42 & 8\end{array}\right]$
(C) $\left[\begin{array}{ll}43 & 27 \\ 34 & 50\end{array}\right]$
(D) $\left[\begin{array}{ll}38 & 32 \\ 28 & 56\end{array}\right]$

1 Answer
127 votes
Answer Key / Explanation : (A) -

$\left[\begin{array}{ll}38 & 28 \\ 32 & 56\end{array}\right]$

127 votes


127