If $f(x)=x^{2}$ for each $x \in(-\infty, \infty),$ then $\frac{f(f(f(x)))}{f(x)}$ is equal to
(A) $f(x)$
(B) $\quad(f(x))^{2}$
(C) $(f(x))^{3}$
(D) $\quad(f(x))^{4}$

Question ID - 157210 | SaraNextGen Top Answer

 If $f(x)=x^{2}$ for each $x \in(-\infty, \infty),$ then $\frac{f(f(f(x)))}{f(x)}$ is equal to
(A) $f(x)$
(B) $\quad(f(x))^{2}$
(C) $(f(x))^{3}$
(D) $\quad(f(x))^{4}$