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For x  R−{0, 1}, let f1(x)= ,   f2(x)=1−x and f3(x)  be there given functions. If a function, J(x) satisfies (f2 ­J f1)(x)=f3(x) then J(x) is equal to

a.

f3(x)

b.

f1(x)

c.

f2(x)

d.

f3(x)



Question ID - 56547 | SaraNextGen Top Answer

For x  R−{0, 1}, let f1(x)= ,   f2(x)=1−x and f3(x)  be there given functions. If a function, J(x) satisfies (f2 ­J f1)(x)=f3(x) then J(x) is equal to

a.

f3(x)

b.

f1(x)

c.

f2(x)

d.

f3(x)

1 Answer
127 votes
Answer Key / Explanation : (a) -

Given f1(x)= ,f2(x)=1−x and f3(x)=

(f2 J f1)(x)=f3(x)

(f2 (J(f1(x)))=f3(x)

 f2 ­­ =   ­­­­­­

I−J  =

J =1−  = =

Now x

J(x)= f3(x)

127 votes


127