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Let f be a differentiable function from R to R such that , for all x, y  R.  If f(0) =1 then

(x) dx is equal to

a.

0    

b.

    

c.

2

d.

1



Question ID - 56740 | SaraNextGen Top Answer

Let f be a differentiable function from R to R such that , for all x, y  R.  If f(0) =1 then

(x) dx is equal to

a.

0    

b.

    

c.

2

d.

1

1 Answer
127 votes
Answer Key / Explanation : (d) -

 

Divide both sides by

  2.

Apply limit x y

0

f ’(y)=0

f(y)=c

f(x)=1

dx=1

127 votes


127